Linked by Thom Holwerda on Tue 4th Aug 2009 16:32 UTC
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Member since:
2005-10-19
You seem to be suffering from the assumption that English follows some kind of logic when it comes to pronounciation.
The vocalisation of the 't' in all of the examples you gave were lost over time, rather than recently gained. It's just that in a large group of English accents, it was not lost. It is therefore not wrong, just different. In fact it could be argued that pronouncing the 't' is more correct as it is closer to the original.
This statement could not be more wrong. I have to force myself to imagine a sentence where these words are pronounced the same, and no native speaker of either the UK or Australia would ever do so.
The fact that they are both born of the same root is irrelevant. Languages evolve, and they are now two separate words with separate meanings.