Linked by Thom Holwerda on Thu 4th Aug 2011 21:38 UTC
Talk, Rumors, X Versus Y The Google-Microsoft patent war of words is continuing. Yesterday, Google (rightfully so, in my book) accused Apple, Microsoft, and Oracle partaking in an organised patent attack against Android, instead of competing on merit, claiming that they bought up Novell's and Nortel's patents solely to attack Android and its device makers. Microsoft struck back, claiming Google was offered to join in on the bids for the Novell patents, but rejected the offer. Google has now responded to this accusation - and to make matters even more confusing, Microsoft responded back. A public shouting match between two powerful parties? Count me in!
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Code in itself is not the implementation approach. I can write the code for an algorithm (approach) in such a way that my code is different from the original source. I'm not improving the approach in anyways whatsoever. In such cases, I'll not be in violation of copyright. But, shouldn't I be in violation of the approach (even if it is not patented)?

Can you please explain how copyright protection works when I use a different programming language?
For Ex: Say a developer at X wrote a program for a unique feature for their phone. The code is copyrighted but the feature is not protected. The code for the same is available for others. I'm from company Y, I take this source code and then rewrite the same in a different programming language.

Is company Y in violation of copyright from a legal standpoint? Y does not care for technical or moral or ethical standpoint.

As an additional example, I want to use the case of Android notification system which Apple blatantly copied in iOS. In such a case, how will you prove the copyright violation? OTOH, had Google patented its notification system, Apple would be liable for infringement.

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