Linked by Thom Holwerda on Thu 5th Jul 2012 23:07 UTC
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Member since:
2007-12-10
If the patent isn't assumed to be valid, how should the aggressor argue that no prior art exists? Arguing something doesn't exist is basically impossible.
Perhaps it would be better to allow the other party to show that the aggressor's patent is invalid (as they only have to show an example of prior art).
Edited 2012-07-06 12:55 UTC