Linked by Thom Holwerda on Sun 18th Nov 2007 15:28 UTC, submitted by JCooper
Mac OS X "Ever since I got the eeePC I've loved how easy it is to tinker with. Since I'm not a Linux guy, I dumped the Xandros preload and opted for Windows XP so I could use my EVDO USB datacard and blogging software easier, but I wondered could I install OSX on it? And, after trial and error - you can! The only problem is that the eeePC only supports SSE2 instead of the SSE3 that Leopard is coded for. Kind of a bummer, and will require some extra tinkering to coax the OS on the eeePC."
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RE: Illegal?
by jal_ on Mon 19th Nov 2007 09:47 UTC in reply to "Illegal?"
jal_
Member since:
2006-11-02

Are people saying that in some country or another I can buy OS X, and I can buy an ASUS EeePC, but I am breaking the law if I install the first to run on the second?

(1) What insane country passed such a law, and


It has little to do with the laws of any country, but like Thom H. already said, with the EULA. The EULA (end user licence agreement) is a legal contract that you 'sign' by opening the OS X package. In that EULA, Apple grants you certain rights and denies you certain other rights, one of these denied rights being to install OS X on something else than a Mac. Microsoft does something similar, denying you the right to run Vista on a virtual PC.

(2) Why would I ever even consider running commercial software of any kind in such a country?

Whether you personally would or would not I cannot answer, but in general people are not intersted in installing an OS, let alone on another platform (or a virtual machine, for that matter).


JAL

Reply Parent Score: 1

RE[2]: Illegal?
by lemur2 on Mon 19th Nov 2007 11:40 in reply to "RE: Illegal?"
lemur2 Member since:
2007-02-17

Apple grants you certain rights and denies you certain other rights, one of these denied rights being to install OS X on something else than a Mac.


It is legal in the US for Apple to sell me computer software but deny me the "right" to run it on a machine that I own?

Since when did Apple get to dictate my rights?

Crazy. Absolutely crazy.

I wonder if the US would next consider a law that allowed a bicycle manufacturer to forbid me (a citizen, with voting rights) to ride on my own property a bike I bought from a bicycle shop.

Software is intended to be run, is it not?

One would consider that when I buy it (and I can buy it separately) then I intend to run it, no?

A computer is intended to run software, is it not?

"The European Software Directive (adopted by the UK in 1992) gives users the freedom to copy, run, modify, and reverse-engineer lawfully acquired programs."

Precisely so.

Even in un-free America, this should be the case.

What should be forbidden is the selling of copies. Everything else ... well I did legally acquire the software, so that copy should be mine to use how I would wish (bar selling copies).

Edited 2007-11-19 11:50

Reply Parent Score: 3

RE[3]: Illegal?
by lemur2 on Mon 19th Nov 2007 12:15 in reply to "RE[2]: Illegal?"
lemur2 Member since:
2007-02-17

Apple grants you certain rights and denies you certain other rights, one of these denied rights being to install OS X on something else than a Mac.

It is legal in the US for Apple to sell me computer software but deny me the "right" to run it on a machine that I own?

Since when did Apple get to dictate my rights?


Just to clarify ... Apple is the copyright holder. That position does give Apple certain rights ... it lets Apple dictate who may, or may not, copy their software for the purpose of sale.

That is it. That is the extent of "rights" which Apple hold in my copy of the software once they have sold it to me, under copyright law.

Apple can legally prevent me from making further copies of the software for sale.

Anything else I might do with the software ... is not constrained by the fact that Apple hold copyrights on it.

I am not a lawyer & all that ... but I do know that I have rights when I buy something, and I do know that the rights granted by copyright law are limited to the right to control the copying of a work.

Edited 2007-11-19 12:16

Reply Parent Score: 3

RE[3]: Illegal?
by jal_ on Mon 19th Nov 2007 12:27 in reply to "RE[2]: Illegal?"
jal_ Member since:
2006-11-02

It is legal in the US for Apple to sell me computer software but deny me the "right" to run it on a machine that I own?

The thing is, software companies don't seel you their software, but the right to use the software. And in that way, they are allowed to dictate what the terms of use are.

I wonder if the US would next consider a law that allowed a bicycle manufacturer to forbid me to ride on my own property a bike I bought from a bicycle shop.

It's better to compare it to a rent or lease: if you lease a bike, it's not yours. You may use it, but only to the extent of your contract with the one who rents the bike. The same goes for software.

"The European Software Directive (adopted by the UK in 1992) gives users the freedom to copy, run, modify, and reverse-engineer lawfully acquired programs."

Yes, but there are additional laws describing what "copy", "run", "modify" and "reverse-engineer" means. E.g. you can only make a copy for back-up purposes, not to run it on a different machine (at least not simultaneously). And the "freedom to copy" does not mean the "right to copy", so software manufacturers are perfectly withint their rights from preventing you to do so.


JAL

Reply Parent Score: 3