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1. Violation of competition law is very different from violation of tax laws. Tax laws are prescriptive - you can follow it to the letter. Competition laws are subjective to the case - without any precedent case, it is hard to ascertain for sure if you're a monopoly (especially when courts no longer define it as near or complete control of a market) and if you're acting illegally.
2. The rise of Firefox shows very clearly that Microsoft's monopoly is neither strong or sustainable or obtainable just by bundling with Windows. IE ascended simply because their competition wasn't capable enough - can anyone honestly say that Netscape 4.x was superior to IE 4.x? Microsoft's main competitor then went into a long-drawn rewrite process that produces Netscape 6 years after losing the market.
It shows the original reasoning in the antitrust case was flawed. If IE's rise can be solely explained by its bundling with Windows, it follows that Microsoft has a monopolistic power in that market. It also follows that though matter how good a competing product is, IE's position in Windows would ensure its monopolistic position. All turning out to be false.






Member since:
2005-07-27
Though it is rather rich that a "monopoly" who saw its market share shrink to 70% (or even less) be subjected to "fair competition law".